Jesus, Prophet and Lawgiver, or Interpreter and Scribe?

By John G. Reisinger

Our Lord constantly insisted that he is the new reference point for understanding truth and duty. John 8:31 says, Then Jesus said to those Jews who believed Him, 'If you abide in my words, you are my disciples indeed. The Jews always went back to Moses for their authority and reference point. In this statement, they would clearly have understood Jesus to be claiming to speak on his own authority. When Jesus said, "If you abide in MY word" the Jews would have understood him to be talking about his own words and not the words of Moses. If Jesus would have said, meant, or in anyway implied, "You must abide in Moses' word," the Jews would not have been upset. They would have said, "Amen." Why were they ready to kill him? Surely not because he expounded the Law of Moses to them. They would have loved that.

They were angry because he dared to make Himself the new reference point for the Law of God. They hated him because he claimed to be replacing Moses just as he replaced Aaron. They were ready to kill him for daring to represent God and speak in God's name.

The people clearly understood that Christ was a radically different teacher. We read of how amazed they were when they heard him preach. "And it came to pass, when Jesus had ended these sayings, the people were astonished at his doctrine: For he taught them as one having authority, and not as the scribes" (Matt 7:28-29). Notice they were astounded at his "doctrine." What was so different about the doctrines Jesus taught and those that the Pharisees taught. They could only expound the Old Covenant and its righteous demands based on the "holy, just, and good" law. Jesus expounded the New Covenant based on grace. The people saw immediately how different our Lord's teaching was from that of the Scribes and Pharisees. They could quote other Scribes and Rabbis, but they could not speak on their own authority. They could not say, "But I say unto you." They could quote Moses but they could not contrast their teaching in any way with Moses.

Matthew 7:24 cannot be twisted into exhorting people to obey the words of Moses. When Jesus said, "Therefore whoever hears these saying of mine, and does them, I will liken him to a wise man who builds his house upon a rock," all of his hearers would clearly understand that "these saying of mine" were just that, the sayings of Christ himself. Not a single person would have assumed he was "expounding the true meaning of Moses." Our Lord was not speaking as a Scribe writing the new and best Talmud, he was speaking as the new Prophet and giving the new laws of his kingdom of grace. It is impossible, as Covenant Theology is forced to do, to make these words mean, "Whoever hears these saying of Moses," but it is not at all difficult to understand Christ to be saying "Who ever hears these sayings of mine."

Before going back to heaven, our Lord commanded his disciples to go into all the world and make disciples, "teaching them to observe all things that I have commanded you." If Christ does not give new laws but sends men back to Moses, or if the "things I have commanded you" are the same things that Moses commanded, where does Moses command that disciples be made and they be baptized in the "name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit"?

If Moses were on earth today he would tell us exactly what our Lord's mother told the men at the wedding party, "His mother saith unto the servants, Whatsoever he saith unto you, do it." The words of Deuteronomy 18:15 are explicit: "The LORD your God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among your own brothers. You must listen to him" (NIV). Again, these words cannot be tortured into having Moses saying, "God will raise up a true interpreter of my law. You must listen to his interpretation of my words."

I think the following words should make anyone think twice about exalting the words of Moses above the words of Christ. The 'writings of Moses' are clearly set in contrast to the 'my words' of Christ. The next few verses are even more explicit.

47. And if any man hear my words, and believe not, I judge him not: for I came not to judge the world, but to save the world.

48. He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day.

49. For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak.

The "hear my words" in verse 47, "receiveth not my words — "the word that I have spoken, " in verse 48, and "he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak" in verse 48 and 49 cannot "hear my interpretation of Moses." How can anyone seriously believe that Jesus really means, "I have faithfully interpreted the true meaning of the words of Moses" into these verses.

I am indebted to a paper, Stirring the Waters, edited by Ernie Serna for much of the above on the words of Christ.


Copyright 2004 John G. Reisinger